Hello, I have a new company car available. Now I have had two sample invoices prepared by the accounting department. Once with and once without own share. For both invoices the 1% + way to work is added to my gross wage. As far as clear. With the invoice with own share the own share (200€) is additionally deducted. The payment amount, i.e. net, is at the end with the invoice with own share higher than without own share. Can this really be true? indicate that the higher I set my own share the higher my net will be. Where is the mistake of thinking? A colleague from another company (belongs to the same group of companies) has been paying an own share for a long time and that’s all right. Thank you for your help