Hello, I have already read diligently, but a case like the following has not yet been discussed: 1.) My brother has inflicted a total damage to his relatively young Honda Jazz. The comprehensive insurance has paid out, of course net. The VAT will be paid afterwards if he proves that he has spent the money on a new car. That’s how it is customary. 2.) He plans to buy a new Honda Jazz (new car). 3.) My father, on the other hand, wants his 12 years al 4.) We had planned to combine my brother’s purchase of new cars with the scrapping of the Clios by officially buying and registering my father’s new car for my brother. Then, of course, my father would get the scrapping premium (because new cars were bought and Clio scrapped) and could use it for the purchase of a used car for himself. My question can almost be thought of at this point. Does the insurance pay the VAT, although my father and not my brother is in the purchase contract? For example, by proving that it is his money that is used for the purchase. Or in any other way? Or is it just because it is within the family? Or no chance? I would be happy if someone could help me! Thank you in advance! martin2k