Hello, I hope you can help me a little bit. I had a car accident over 2 months ago, in which another driver took the lead and drove into me. The accident was 100% indebted of her, accepted by the police and against you a fine was initiated. I had my car (Citroen C1, 5 years old) examined by an expert. It came out that an economic total damage is present (10,000 euros repair costs), the replacement value was set at 3,950 euros (purchase value 2,800 euros). I received 780 euros of residual value from a scrapper. Still remained about 3,100 for the insurance. However, the opposing insurance tried to restrict payments from the beginning or to make with extreme delay. After I had to fight with the insurance for almost 2 months, I got transferred for the 2,400 euros. The rest (something about 600 euros), so they told me, is VAT and we d transferred if I could prove that I really bought another car. After a Peugeot 207 was snatched away from me in front of a car dealership, I bought a similar Peugeot 207 (5 years old) from a private person. Of course, I didn’t think about the VAT at the moment, because the insurance said yes, that they only need the proof that I really got another car. For that I should have a copy of the purchase contract and the vehicle c The insurance company suddenly thinks that it does not have to transfer the VAT to me because there is no VAT on the private purchase. Fortunately, however, they would give me 300 euros. Is that right? It should be pointed out that a private purchase completely deletes the VAT refund. Finally, I paid VAT for the C1. The VAT for the new Peugeot 207 is I have here an article about it:http://www.accident.net/faq/items/how-is-the-with-the-refund-of-the-value added tax.html And an extract from the accident aid (http://www.auto-accident-hilfe.de/stadt/index1.htm?accident-mehrwert.htm):c.) Total damage with proven replacement procurement The victim is entitled to reimbursement of the gross vehicle value according to expert opinion (incl. added value or difference tax). The only thing that matters is that a replacement vehicle has actually been purchased. And another extract from the traffic dictionary (http://www.verkehrslexikon.de/Texte/UStReplacement02.php):The victim, who after a total damage obtains a replacement vehicle on the private used car market (i.e. not from a commercial dealer), is to replace the “shared” value added tax even then. n, if the purchase contract does not show a separate value added tax or if it is merely an oral purchase contract. And here:”If the injured party buys his replacement car from private, he can also demand the (gross) replacement value determined by the expert, according to a judgment of the BGH of 1 March 2005 (Az. VI ZR 91/04, ADAJUR-doc. No. 63616), if the amount spent on the replacement purchase reaches or exceeds that value” What do you think? Is this worth fighting and/or possibly the Involvement of a traffic law lawyer (with legal protection insurance)?