moin people, my mother had started Januar an unindebted accident with her passat. here an extract from the review: repair costs without VAT. 1400.21€ repurchase value 2600.00€ residual value with VAT 1760.00€ impairment none with the review came also a binding purchase offer from a dealer’s car-online with the 1760,-€ my mother rejected the offer because then she would no longer have a car. what also the insurance and the dealer was said. a few days ago came came dan a letter from the insurance with the following contents: “-total damage amount 840€ -expenditure amount 25€ -total amount 865€ according to this report a total damage occurred. the purchase value amounts to 260€. after deduction of the remaining value of 1760€ a vehicle damage of 840€ results. in advance we calculate on the basis of an economic total damage. after deduction of the remaining value in the amount of 1760€ from the acquisition value of 260€ an amount is calculated from 840€. according to A.2.10 of the general conditions for insurances the rep. costs can only be charged if the proof of a complete reperature has been provided. please provide us in this case a rep. invoice. the transfer of the above mentioned amount is initiated ” so, and last my question(s): in the report there is nevertheless something of 140€ without VAT, why does the insurance now only want to transfer 865€? or has to do with the fact that we do not pass the passat to the h ändler sell. can you please explain it to me so that I understand……. imagine I’d be six years old thank you for your help rod