Hi everybody, I’m probably wrong here, but I didn’t find a suitable subforum for my question. I still hope that there are some people around with a clue who could be to clarify a dispute. So my husband was on the way yesterday with my car, when he came home he told me full of pride that he drove according to Tacho 310km/h. Since I know my car I asked him which slope he flew down, because at 290 km/h real 285 km/h is actually the end. He only said: No straight track, but with tailwind. Then I broke out in sounding laughter – how could my husband only use this strunting stupid tailwind argumentation, which one reads again and again in forums? – In any case, I then first enlightened the normal wind are not very fast, hurricanes catch already at 120km/h and at a speed beyond the 250km/h he would have had to chased already from a tornado of the level F4 or F5 In any case, he remained stubborn (probably as a defiant reaction because I laughed at him) and continued to claim that one achieves a higher speed when the wind blows in the direction of driving than when it is still. I then admitted to him for the sake, “Well, maybe you get out 2-3 km/h due to the lower air resistance, but no 20km/h which really reached 310km/h, but not by “backwind”. The end of the story was that he slept on the couch and even this morning he was caught at breakfast. Therefore the question to the experts: Is the claim tailwind, from a certain speed total nonsense (as I mean)? Or can it be that by the lower air resistance speeds of over 20km/h compared to the normal final speed be reached?