hello together! the following problem: at the beginning of last week I sold 200 € winter bikes from my former car. without contract and nothing. he got the bikes, I got the money. two days later he suddenly reported to me that the tyres would be scrapped and he would like to have at least 100 € again. he was at a tyre dealer and he meant to him that he needed new tyres. the insurance would not pay at this profile depth (partially 3.5 mm; otherwise more) if something p because I couldn’t react immediately to sms because of work, even in the evening I was standing in front of my door. I told him that I bought the bikes myself from the car house at the time, where I had the car. that was in the april this year. so I didn’t even ride the winter bikes myself. the salesman said at that time, however, that I could still drive the tyres in all cases a winter. in writing, of course, I didn’t. but that’s not the point. in any case, s He told me per sms that the matures in some places have only 3.5mm profile depth – otherwise more. now I have read that the legal minimum profile depth is 1.6 mm and I ask myself, to what extent he is right to demand money back. does he have that at all? clearly, I could take the wheels back and sell them to someone else. the problem is, however, that I now absag to all other interested parties. t and no longer have a number. besides, he had not inquired about anything in view when buying. I don’t want to stress with the; where he already knows where I live – but to what extent does he have right to demand money back? I would be very happy to reply promptly.