Dear forum members, I’m thinking about getting an R 320 CDi and I’m in the middle of my financing. Is the following bill correct or am I making a mistake??? So: 1 year of used R 320 with approx.20 tkm is about 30% below list price; i.e. list price 65 T = 45 T. (incl. VAT). I’m a freelancer “on the side” and I usually transfer the VAT to the tax office; i.e. I can make these claims to the tax office for VAT. Ergo: 45 T . x 0.81 = 36.45 T. The car goes into my operating assets and I write it for 4 years (9.114 Euro x 4). Since I also use the car privately and do not want to keep a travel book, I have to tax 1% of the new car value as monetary value advantage (650 Euro per month = approx. 160 Euro at my tax rate). However, I will not have to pay this 160 Euro because my annual turnover is very burdened by the purchase of the car (operating expenses?) . I also save taxes because i After 4 years, the car is depreciated and I can sell it “favorably” to a friend. He could sell the car, if he wants, immediately more expensive (this time with VAT). Is a milk girl bill described above or do I meet with it the object retention? Thank you for the feedback, Minika