If you already know it, it will only elicit a tired grin, but I have the case for the first time now and get angry accordingly. I can pay for a damage that I did not cause! Coming: Drive with mother-in-law to the hardware store, it opens the passenger door unprecautionarily in the parking lot and causes a large scratch/delle on the neighboring vehicle. OK, she has a private liability, no problem. Think. Since the damage (a) in connection with the use of a ( my) car has been created and (b) mother-in-law has not gone with me against my will, a regulation by her private HP is eliminated, and I am liable for damages to the injured person and can only take up my car liability insurance. The latter is senseless because of premium loss at this point, it is cheaper for me to pay the damage (about 600 €) out of my pocket. Well, mother-in-law has agreed to give me the money. But she is a minimum pensioner with 100% GDB and really doesn’t have the money left, so we’ll give it up. I don’t get it. Well, the term “operational danger” is familiar to me, but in such a case it’s not understandable to me. If the same scratch had been caused by a shopping cart/purchasing property or a building door or anything else, the private HP would not be a problem. Slowly I can understand why insurance fraud is popular sport. It happens again and again that insurance companies are the nicest and greatest companies at the conclusion of the contract, but if they have to afford, it happens again and again exactly the current damage unfortunately, unfortunately not covered. The next time I ask my mother-in-law to bang again with a shopping cart against the same place, so that it can be regulated fairly. (No, wasn’t a joke. Of course we don’t do that and do not call here for crimes.)