Hello, I hope someone can help me… I bought my A6 last year from private as accident-free. (So it is in the purchase contract and was confirmed to me several times so verbally) Now I sold the car a week ago as accident-free (I had none and the previous owner had none according to the purchase contract). Now the buyer of my car had an accident (a wild damage). At the sale the buyer had told me that the car must have had an accident because he nac But he just suspected it and didn’t say anything more about it. I told him that I didn’t have an accident and bought it without an accident, which I can prove. Now he just called me and said that if the car was already reported as an accident car, the insurance company would not pay for the damage he had now. He would then sue by lawyer and I would have to take the broken car back and give him the money. What can I do ? Let’s take to the previous owner had an accident with the car (total damage) and nicely collected the money from the insurance company and then had it sent to me and sold it to me as accident free. Would the insurance pay the damage that has now occurred?. He cited the example what I have described above. I hope for your help… Sorry if errors are in the text but am just something by the wind…