Hello together, the following: I bought a motorcycle in May. (had a slide according to the previous owner). In the purchase contract accident machines were held. The motorcycle drives very well no indication that something is wrong. Everything works as it should. Unfortunately I had to separate now from my motorcycle, because I just need some money. On sale the buyer wanted to write in no “accident machine”. But at the column: Pre-damage by previous owner = “Slip” Is that right? Can the buyer charge me if there is something on the machine that I don’t know about? If there really is something, I would give him the money again and take the machine back. Thank you in advance.