Moin The question probably came up here many times and therefore I already ask for an apology that I do not take the search. But damn… what do you give for keywords? Now to the question. I recently drove someone into the car. Estimate approx. 1200,- € and got the money from the opposing verse.. I had the damage corrected yesterday and this at a cheaper price, since 2 parts could be repaired by polishing and not repainted So the bill is lower. Now my workshop man said that I can get the VAT paid from the verse if I send the bill there. But I have a little “fear” that the verse opens a barrel because of the cheaper bill. Does that make it? Or does it pay the VAT, no matter what difference between the estimate and the actual bill? Thank you! Best regards