Hello, I had my first accident yesterday. I was on a driveway. In front of me a woman drove. From a side street an elderly gentleman came in without notice that he must grant an advance. His car patrols the woman’s car which understandably fully braked. I am also directly full on the brake but it was already too late. Due to wet road my car comes into the slide and drives the woman in full back. According to the police the main cause and guilty the older gentleman. The woman is damaged, and I’m partly sorry because I didn’t have enough safety distance to the woman. My car clearly took the most damage. The whole front part is broken. I contacted my insurance immediately afterwards, which explained to me that despite partial debt I would have to bear the cost for my repair alone, because my car did not come into contact with the main culprit. So his insurance would not have anything with it anymore. u do. Now my question is whether this is really true? in my eyes this doesn’t really make much sense, because the gentleman is clearly responsible for the ONE accident. The police have deliberately decided to consider it as just one accident and not to divide it into two (the gentleman and the woman + my driving accident). How does it come then that the insurance there draws a limit? The colleague from the insurance company I thought I could deal with the gentleman in court, but what again meh What are my chances? Do I really not have the right to leave part of the repair costs to the insurance company? I myself only have a liability insurance. Therefore, repairing my insurance does not leave any possibility. Many thanks in advance!