Author: 00c12f

Hello dear pros, I ask here on behalf of a colleague. Her car was recently damaged without fault by a parking ramp back right. Back left (same component: bumper) there was already an unrepaired pre-damage. The opposing insurance rejects any regulation with reference to the existing pre-damage. However, taken mobile phone pictures from the current accident clearly show that the other car drove in her back right. Is there any Chan ce to have this damage regulated? Thank you and greeting Martin

Hello to the round, I am in a difficult decision-making situation with my case and hope to get a wider view of the situation through external input. I have caused damage to my Sharan by a self-inflicted accident of 15,500 € (the figures are from a DEKRA opinion). The estimated replacement value for the Sharan is 23,800.- An offer of one of a “auto-recovery” for the accidented Sharan in the amount of 13,680,- (residual offer) Vers The insurance is against a repair, for plausible economic reasons [15.500,-€ repair > 23.800,-€(residual value) – 13.680,-€(residual value offer) = 10120,-€ (insurance service for non-repair) ] Now I have a new offer from the insurance, which you not only want to give me the 10.120,-€ “residual value offer” sond ern 12.120,- thus a new purchase of a used sharan (approx. 26,000,-€) would be a “zero sum game”: insurance benefit 12.120,-€ + residual value offer 13.680,- € = 25.800,- How about the process ? Please give me input to the mentioned thoughts, guessings, hunches, even if it is only partial aspects. I am very grateful for every message (if it is nice ) Dear Greetings André

Moin together The day before yesterday, a still unknown driver drove into the parked BMW of my friend and turned himself out of the dust. The damage to the BMW will be several thousand euros. It happened in the semi-darkness, but a witness saw from a distance that the fled vehicle was a dark combo. At the scene, he left some splinters of his tail light behind when he drove into the right side of the BMw. After long picture-googling we did not come so really That’s why I’m asking if someone can assign the splinters to a car.

Hello, first of all I have already used the SuFu, but read totally different statements, so maybe someone has a good idea and can help me with my problem. So last week I bought an Audi TT Roadster from a private man, I asked him explicitly if it was a reimport, what he denied and accordingly checked this in the purchase contract. Today I dealt extensively with the documents and it occurred to me because in Brie f what was with Hungary. I didn’t know that the jobs in an EU vehicle were null, but they are unfortunately also available. I know that the car is not worse than a German vehicle, but if I had known I wouldn’t have paid the price. I haven’t talked to the seller yet to inform me. Would be happy if someone could help me! Greeting Carsten

Hello, I bought my first car three years ago (with SF 1/2) and had a car accident in the same year. The car slipped because of the wet and the highway plank is caused by me, but I did not get a point from Flensburg … the car was unfortunately completely cut and scrapped, I did not have a car afterwards. Last week I bought a used car and am looking for a cheap understanding on the internet, for that I always have to enter an SF class….v on the then insurance I have learned that my SF class increases to 0 because of the accident, so the cost is quite high. My question now is: if I go to another insurance, do I have to calculate the cost exactly with SF0? Or can I withdraw it back to SF 1/2 because I had a break in between almost 3 years? How is the regulation in this case? I apologize for my bad German, hopefully I have clearly explained my situation u And I’ll be very happy to receive your answers/ advice!!!