Category: KFZ-Versicherung Forum

Hello community! I have the following problem, I drove behind a truck in the direction of a roundabout, the truck driver is instead in the driveway to the roundabout, into the exit (speak to the oncoming traffic) and I instinctively followed him (seen by the construction no signs and thought we were on a “around road” past the roundabout and would switch to the road for in the roundabout. The truck driver then noticed his error when he had a vehicle I also braked and came to stand 2.50m behind him.He put in the reverse gear and set backwards (without seeing me, because I came to stand 2.50m behind the truck.The truck then pushed me back 5m with the underrun protection until he noticed me behind the trailer. As far as the accident happened. Now my question is, is it his fault, because he drove backwards without an instructor / safety post? Or do I have to pay a partial debt. On the one hand, we both went wrong and if I hadn’t followed him, nothing would have happened, on the other hand, of course, he can’t just drive backwards without convincing himself of a free danger area. In my view, it doesn’t matter if both of us were wrong, if both of us would have done the right thing with him. Thanks already in advance for the answers!

Hello, recently someone drove me into my parked car. The debt question is undisputed and an expert report has been prepared. -Repair costs (net) 3.500,00 EUR -Repair costs (gross) 4.165,00 EUR -Replacement value 12.000,00 EUR -Value reduction 500,00 EUR Today came the answer of the insurance of the accident causer. Repair costs (net) 3.500,00 EUR (-) Error memory read out (-) Vehicle transfer (-) painting in door (-) UPE spare parts surcharges (-) small parts _ _______________________________________________________________________ Payment EUR 3,000.00 No word is lost about the impairment. I should be entitled to this even in the case of fictitious accounting, or ? The vehicle is now just over 2 years young. What about all the other deletions? Justifications have been given, but don’t seem very conclusive to me.

Hello everyone, I had a classic driving accident yesterday with my B-Class 170 automatic/petrol (BJ 08/2007, approx. 90 tsd km). I was self-inflicted and drove into someone. I have comprehensive with 500 € excess. The expert of my insurance has already looked at the car and has prepared an expert report (but I have not received this yet). I could already see, however, that he set the replacement value of my B-Class at around 8900 € The damage or repair costs amount to about 9600 €, means an economic total damage. But I still have to pay off my car (financing purchase, it is still missing 4000 €). My question to you: What is worth doing in such a case? The insurance does not pay me the damage. What can I get out of the insurance? Does the classic invoice apply here: replacement value 8900 € – residual value? Unfortunately, I have not yet received the residual value. I would have expected now: 8900 € WWW – residual value (approximately thought) possibly from 3000 € = 5900 €. 5900 € – excess of 500 € = 5400 € I get from the insurance? Do I see that right? I could then still sell the car for 3000 € or more depending on who buys it again or? Thank you for your answers.

Moin! Quick question about leasing insurance. My father-in-law in-law can pick up his new Audi A5 convertible (almost – 2 years duration) from the dealer at the beginning of next week. Today we wanted to conclude an insurance with CAP cover (difference of new and current value of the vehicle is covered in case of total damage or theft). I came up with the following question, which I have not yet received from any of the three insurance companies where I called and which have received such a CAP What is the problem of accidents that lead to total damage? All customer hotlines agreed that the CAP coverage of their own insurance does not apply, since the accident was not caused by a self-indebted person. Different statements were made as to whether the opposing insurance only had the time value of the vehicle, or the “actual, economic damage” (i.e. in the worst case the Neuwe rt, which the lessor requires from the lessee), and whether it is necessary to claim the difference in the cause of the accident itself. Has one of you by chance already gained experience and can answer this question to me? Thanks for the post! Greetings

Moin, I have an economic total damage to a car that is over 10 years old. The vehicle is fully covered and the damage is to be settled. In the report, by the expert of the insurance, the replacement value is indicated with VAT, with difference tax and without VAT. Because of the age of the vehicle, the report says something that the vehicle would trade only on the private market due to age and of tax neutral. For me, it is now worth purchasing: – At least equivalent replacement without a reasonable VAT (e.g. from private)? – At least equivalent replacement purchase with a minimum VAT? – Low replacement purchase? – No replacement purchase? Thank you in advance!

My car was for repair in a workshop for 10 days. On the day of collection, my insurance called me because she had questions about the accident, which should have happened 3 days before. I fell out of all the clouds, after all, I knew nothing about the accident. When I picked up the car, I did not pay the workshop bill (in consultation with my lawyer). We charged the bill with the damage to my vehicle. I paid the lawyer out of my own pocket, the money would have to refund the workshop as well, but it has not so far. I called my insurance again, explained the facts and informed them of the factory liability of the workshop. The workshop said they paid the damage out of their own pocket (there are witnesses for that). Nevertheless, I informed the factory liability of the workshop. Nothing happened for weeks. At some point my insurance called and said that the factory liability of the factory If she (my insurance company) regulates the damage now remains to be seen, since there were certain inconsistencies with regard to the accident. Now my insurance company informed me that I have to pay the damage myself if I do not want to be upgraded. I would have the choice between once 3,900 euros or even higher and then over the next few years almost 6,000 euros. I am completely baffled, you can not take the accident from Even though the workshop UNBErechtIGT has done a test drive of over 500 kilometers and is still building an accident. Now I have to go back to the lawyer, which I have to pay again from my own pocket (legal protection is NOT available anymore due to an old case). Does someone know similar cases or, better still, judgments at hand?

Hello together, now I have a question, since I don’t know any more at the moment. Since my wife had a complete damage to her car, was after that still considered whether we had to have repaired, or buy another car. Now it is the case that a newer car was bought with declared VAT, only the question is, is this still refunded by the insurance? With the figures: replacement value: 10500€ residual value: 4000€ repair costs gross: 700€ repair costs net: 5822€ Now the insurance has, because we wanted to fictitiously settle, in order to repair, if necessary, the well-priced for them, i.e. the 5822 minus SB. After a few days and ample consideration / consideration, a 3 year newer vehicle of the same type was bought from the dealer with VAT, price here 13000€. Now the purchase contract was filed with the insurance with the request the VAT (difference repair costs gross net) to our account But it seems that the insurance company has a problem with the fact that it has to pay now suddenly more than the replacement value- residual value, a letter came with the answer in about “the replacement value was determined tax neutrally, therefore no VAT was deducted from the replacement value and thus no VAT can be refunded.” I find the whole thing somewhat strange, because in principle I have little with the Wiede Is a replacement not equal to a repair, so I’m counting on this basis?! Sorry, but somehow I’m standing on the hose right now and I hope something can be helped here. Thank you!

Hello, I had an accident a few days ago on the highway (fortunately nothing wild). Everything was clarified without police (personals, license plates etc.) The car insurance company of the accident causer (ALLIANZ) called me and step by step explained how we best proceed. I have to admit I was surprised. Because: I had to send photos of the damage to those in which I upload them in their app – accordingly I would get a quote. After a day I got the email with the estimate. I accepted these, and handed them my bank account. Now the curious: the money came after 2 days. 1 day later, when the money came, I got a call that it allegedly came to a mistake (too much charged ). My vehicle is also no longer the latest ( e Coupé built in 2010 ). 750 euros for a bumper back (painting, wages) I found appropriate. Now the ones of me want to return 250 euros. How should I proceed??? do not agree. Where should I please have my bumper painted professionally for 500 euros ??? Thank you and greeting !

Hello, I’m pretty much on the hose right now because I hear a lot of different opinions. I hope here can finally give me a reasonable answer to that. I’ve driven in behind an unbraked one, the result: economic total damage, ready to drive but not traffic safe according to report. My main question is, from when to when does a usage loss compensation apply and is it bound to certain things like the registration? People tell me, I should snow my car so ll unsubscribe as possible, because only the time between registration of the accident car and registration of the new vehicle is valid. I also read the time from accident to receipt of the report + time to obtain the new vehicle. I received the report only after 2-3 weeks, why I don’t know. There it says that I need 14 days to get back. The car is still registered. Reason: long wait for reports, and without money of the insurance I can not get a new one, d I wait until I finally have my compensation and then sell the old one and get a new one. What now? Should I now log it off and fetch a new one and apply with the documents for the failure? What is wrong with the time before? Don’t get me wrong, I don’t want to get out of there as many days as possible, the 14 days are enough for me completely. Do I already have entitlement to this or should I actually unsubscribe after 2-3 weeks after the accident and then it only applies to the e time until I have a new vehicle? Would it be very clear and correct from paperwork, but actually total bullshit that I have not got a car for 1 month and then can only start to get a new one and only this time counts.. Hope you can give me a little clarity. As I said, I do not want to apply for several days of usage failure, the 14 days from the report would be optimal. At least a small compensation. Mfg

Hello dear community, my father passed away a few weeks ago and we want to sell his Tiguan now. Since we don’t really know all this stuff, I wanted to ask for some advice on what to do or what to do most usefully. I will contact the car insurance company tomorrow and have the insurance transferred to my mother, which is the heir. Now to my question: How is it most useful with the registration/re-registration at the car S should the Tiguan be rewritten to my mother before it is sold? My thoughts are then regarding the resale, since then still an owner is in the papers and the car is then worth less money?! Completely unsubscribe is also somehow not quite useful, because if the car interested wants to make a test drive, is this not possible?! Thanks for their help… Maybe my thought is also completely wrong, or I have something not Thoughtful Lg